Can someone explain the vote in California?

Marriage is "defined" by historical and societal precedent. That is all that is needed. You can say that it "doesn't hold water", but all you are doing is making a baseless assertion and showing that you are unwilling to accept what society understands marriage as.

Further, you then assert your view and try and blatantly and baselessly put the burden of proof on others to disprove it. Sorry, society doesn't have to justify it's understanding of what marriage is. That burden of proof falls on you. You have to justify why your definition of marriage should be substituted for the generally accepted one.

You have to convince us, not the other way around. To try and change that dynamic only shows you to be stuborn and irrational on this issue.

And don't try to lecture on what the "intended meaning" of the equal protection clause is. Your whole argument makes it clear that you have no idea what its means and how it is applied. Nor do you understand the nature of marriage as a right. That right does not even come into play except between two unrelated people of the opposite sex. If you are going to predicate your argument on not accepting that fact, then you need to cite a logical reason for that; not just flat deny it.

You can keep asserting that California violated the 14th Amendment, but until you can prove that marriage is a right that can be exercised between any two people regardless of sex, all you are doing is repeating an assertion and showing that you are either incapable or unwilling to understand the opposing point of view. If you can't understand the opposing point of view (not a strawman mischaracterization of it), then you cannot reasonably counter it.

You don't even seem to be trying to counter the legitimate points raised. All you are doing is basically saying "I don't believe it" and "give me more proof". In this debate, due to the precautionary principle, it is your side that has to convince us, not the other way around.

In regards to the SCOTUS's jurisprudence regarding the 14th Amendment; the court has only recognized "suspect status" (status that makes a law that categorizes on that basis suspect, and therefore deserving of greater judicial scrutiny) in the case of racial and religious minorities. The court has never extended suspect class status to minorities with regards to sexual orientation. So claiming that this law violates the Constitution is a weak argument, at best.

Besides, as the Sowell article pointed out, prop 8 does not discriminate (prejudicial treatment of a person or group based on certain inherent and inborn characteristics). Instead, it distinguishes between different kinds of behavior. That is a very important difference. It is based on behavior, not inborn traits.
 
A hetero relationship is no different than a homosexual rerlationship except the hetero relationship can pro-create.

And that is another key part of the definition of marriage that should not be merely glossed over. The reason marriage has traditionally been defined as being between a man and a woman is for the purpose of procreation. Marriage is an institution for the procreation and raising of children. Homosexual couples cannot do that, and so, once again. that institution does not apply to them. This was all covered at great length earlier this summer in this thread, which you participated in and should familiarize yourself with the arguments made in it.
 
Joey, I need to take issue with what you posted with regard to the 14th amendment, and it's provisions.
No where does it state that man or woman or same sex couples are to be treated differently, but what it does speak, loud and clear is that ( and here is the buzz word) all CITIZENS , nothing about marraige or whatever, all CITIZENS shall be afforded equal protection.

You can take issue all you want. But I'm telling you what the courts, including the US Supreme Court, have decided regarding equal protection.

The key is that the courts have defined when equal protection applies. And they have specifically used the term, similarily situated.



Dont misunderstand. I'm not telling you MY opinion on the matter, I am telling you about what the law says regarding the 14th amendment.
 
Only marriage between a man and a woman is valid or recognized in California

That is the entire text of California's Prop8 for those not familiar with it.

Do note it does not say gays cannot marry, only that the State of California will not recognize it or consider it valid, so go to your church, get married, tell everyone you know your married and get on with your life.

Bob Hubbard, do you even live in California?

Also note Prop8 does not change laws, it is an admendment to the state constitution.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Only marriage between a man and a woman is valid or recognized in California

That is the entire text of California's Prop8 for those not familiar with it.

Do note it does not say gays cannot marry, only that the State of California will not recognize it or consider it valid, so go to your church, get married, tell everyone you know your married and get on with your life.

Bob Hubbard, do you even live in California?

Also note Prop8 does not change laws, it is an admendment to the state constitution.



I live in California, and your last statement is an oxymoron(hope I spelled that right)
An amendment is a CHANGE to an existing rule.
That is why amendments are instituted in the first place, to alter an existing provision so, saying no laws were changed is false.
In it's original context the state constitution allowed for same couple marraiges, and the voters decree altered (changed) the constitution.
Bob.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
In this case, it's not a change to an existing rule, it's just a clarification.
The only people attempting to CHANGE anything by REDEFINING something are the homosexual activists.

Bob, you refuse to address any of the other arguments in this post, simply restating your initial query/observation.

Marriage, in the eyes of the state, is simply a specific legal arrangement for a specific circumstance.
 
In it's original context the state constitution allowed for same couple marraiges, and the voters decree altered (changed) the constitution.


No, in its original context, the state constitution was unclear. This amendment clarified that. Besides, even if the amendment did change the state constitution, it wouldn't matter, as that is the method perscribed to change it.
 
No, in its original context, the state constitution was unclear. This amendment clarified that. Besides, even if the amendment did change the state constitution, it wouldn't matter, as that is the method perscribed to change it.


Well, the California courts will be deciding that one.
 
Well, the California courts will be deciding that one.

No, the amendment trumps the courts.
The courts overturned a proposition.
The people have now made it part of the constitution.

For the record, California wasn't/isn't the only state to do this. Florida did the same thing in the past election, it too won with overwhelming support.
 
Should marriage be defined by the state? I don't think it should at all - nor should marriage be part of any state decree. Civil unions are all the state should be allowed to 'lord' over. Define the legal ramifications and leave it at that. Estates, benefits, legal rights, all defined by civil unions - leave the whole 'blessed marriage' out of the equation at the legislative level.

Marriage is a part of religion/faith- not state. Let the states condone civil unions, and leave marriage (and it's baggage) to the church.

Get serious about separating church and state.

Make everyone who wants the legal benefits, sign that piece of paper at the courthouse - if you want the 'blessing' of the church, and you want to be married - stand in front of both - the bench and the altar - that is up to you.

Let's face it - 'happily ever after' and 'I now pronounce you man and wife' aren't really applicable to the 21st century.
 
Should marriage be defined by the state? I don't think it should at all - nor should marriage be part of any state decree. Civil unions are all the state should be allowed to 'lord' over. Define the legal ramifications and leave it at that. Estates, benefits, legal rights, all defined by civil unions - leave the whole 'blessed marriage' out of the equation at the legislative level.

Marriage is a part of religion/faith- not state. Let the states condone civil unions, and leave marriage (and it's baggage) to the church.

Get serious about separating church and state.

Make everyone who wants the legal benefits, sign that piece of paper at the courthouse - if you want the 'blessing' of the church, and you want to be married - stand in front of both - the bench and the altar - that is up to you.

Let's face it - 'happily ever after' and 'I now pronounce you man and wife' aren't really applicable to the 21st century.
Curiously, your opinion matches that of Ron Paul.
 
No it's not. Laws, constitutions , articles, admendments, are all different things. Although they may appear to have the same effects they go about it in different ways and have different purposes.

Living in California you should be aware most Californians are not gay, are not hostile to gays, and don't care if gays are "wedded" or not.

They don't care for judges telling them their votes don't count and they are just plain tired of gays complaining about one thing after an other for years. Be gay, live your life, don't go forcing your choices to do so on everyone else and tell them they have to be happy about it.

I've worked with gays, partied with gays, helped them move to new homes, defended them in youth sports, and my sons godfather is gay. None of them has ever expressed any inerest in marriage. Why has it become a political issue in recent years? I think gays are being used as cats paws for others political agendas. Are they "usefull idiots" as Stalin put it?
 
I've worked with gays, partied with gays, helped them move to new homes, defended them in youth sports, and my sons godfather is gay. None of them has ever expressed any inerest in marriage. Why has it become a political issue in recent years? I think gays are being used as cats paws for others political agendas. Are they "usefull idiots" as Stalin put it?


I think you nailed it right there.
 
Curiously, your opinion matches that of Ron Paul.

Is that a good thing? There are actually a few things I march in line with Ron Paul on - surprise!

Oh, I am pretty sure that to amend the constitution in California it had to go through the legislature first - and Prop8 will be tossed out on that fact. Sort of a waste of time in my opinion.
 
Ballot initiatives are common place. While I'm not familiar with the process in California, I know that in Florida that constitutional amendments can be achieved through ballot initiatives.

That's why there was a "constitutional amendment" calling for the bullet train at one point.

And, then after people realized what it would cost, there was another ballot initiative that removed the original bullet train amendment from the state constitution.
 
Is that a good thing? There are actually a few things I march in line with Ron Paul on - surprise!

Oh, I am pretty sure that to amend the constitution in California it had to go through the legislature first - and Prop8 will be tossed out on that fact. Sort of a waste of time in my opinion.
Nope. Can't be tossed out. Constitutional Amendments are not subject to any court's jurisdiction. Did you take Civics in school?
 
No, the amendment trumps the courts.
The courts overturned a proposition.
The people have now made it part of the constitution.

For the record, California wasn't/isn't the only state to do this. Florida did the same thing in the past election, it too won with overwhelming support.



But attorneys for several gay rights groups have challenged the Prop. 8 victory, filing legal papers calling on the state Supreme Court to reject the same-sex marriage ban as an overreaching use of the public's initiative power.
http://www.sfgate.com/cgi-bin/article.cgi?f=/c/a/2008/11/06/BA1313VJQH.DTL&type=politics

As I said, the courts will decide....
 
Nope. Can't be tossed out. Constitutional Amendments are not subject to any court's jurisdiction. Did you take Civics in school?

I did take civics - but I didn't take California state civics (rather silly - since I have lived in Colorado almost my entire life). Obviously you have taken civics classes for all 50 states Foss - or maybe you have lived in California and know about how amendments get added to their state constitution. There maybe some sort of restriction to adding prejudice in the California constitution. That is what the lawsuit is about.

The American Civil Liberties Union, Lambda Legal and the National Center for Lesbian Rights filed a writ petition before the California Supreme Court today urging the court to invalidate Proposition 8 if it passes. The petition charges that Proposition 8 is invalid because the initiative process was improperly used in an attempt to undo the constitution’s core commitment to equality for everyone by eliminating a fundamental right from just one group – lesbian and gay Californians. Proposition 8 also improperly attempts to prevent the courts from exercising their essential constitutional role of protecting the equal protection rights of minorities. According to the California Constitution, such radical changes to the organizing principles of state government cannot be made by simple majority vote through the initiative process, but instead must, at a minimum, go through the state legislature first.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
As I said, the courts will decide....

But that doesn't mean that it is constitutionally within the court's power to do so. All that does is confirm the fact that California has very activist judges for whom constitutional obligations and restrictions mean nothing. Those lawyers know this and seek to exploit it.
 
And that is another key part of the definition of marriage that should not be merely glossed over. The reason marriage has traditionally been defined as being between a man and a woman is for the purpose of procreation. Marriage is an institution for the procreation and raising of children. Homosexual couples cannot do that, and so, once again. that institution does not apply to them. This was all covered at great length earlier this summer in this thread, which you participated in and should familiarize yourself with the arguments made in it.

So, sorry shag - I went through the thread... there wasn't really any mention of 'why have any constitutional argument about marriage'? The founding fathers didn't - it isn't in the constitution, they left it out. There isn't any constitutional right for anyone to get married- other than falling within the freedom of religion, and the 14th...

No rules, no regulations. It isn't a right at all.

So why bother? Keep the government out of the mess entirely. Make it a civil contract. Why worry about all the definitions of what marriage constitutes?

And there certainly shouldn't be any amendments to restrict marriage to some sort of religious belief or historical precedent.

And for procreation - ;)
 
So, sorry shag - I went through the thread... there wasn't really any mention of 'why have any constitutional argument about marriage'? The founding fathers didn't - it isn't in the constitution, they left it out. There isn't any constitutional right for anyone to get married- other than falling within the freedom of religion, and the 14th...

No rules, no regulations. It isn't a right at all.

So why bother? Keep the government out of the mess entirely. Make it a civil contract. Why worry about all the definitions of what marriage constitutes?

And there certainly shouldn't be any amendments to restrict marriage to some sort of religious belief or historical precedent.

And for procreation - ;)
And yet you libs claim to a right to abortions in the Constitution? :rolleyes:
 
And yet you libs claim to a right to abortions in the Constitution? :rolleyes:

"You libs" :rolleyes:

So, where in the constitution does it say I can't have an abortion? I haven't seen the section where we have defined that life begins at conception.

Privacy, freedom of religion, yes. Life begins at the point of conception - no.

Once you open that can of worms - watch out. All your sperm swimming about soon will become sacred cows - and self gratification will be outlawed...;)

The constitution is a very liberal document, the founding fathers certainly weren't thought of as "conservative".
 
"You libs" :rolleyes:

So, where in the constitution does it say I can't have an abortion? I haven't seen the section where we have defined that life begins at conception.

Privacy, freedom of religion, yes. Life begins at the point of conception - no.

Once you open that can of worms - watch out. All your sperm swimming about soon will become sacred cows - and self gratification will be outlawed...;)

The constitution is a very liberal document, the founding fathers certainly weren't thought of as "conservative".
You're conflating a medical and biological diagnosis that was made by lawyers with a straw man argument? Classic. I'm looking for the section in the Constitution where we have defined that it's okay to murder unborn babies.
 
So, where in the constitution does it say I can't have an abortion? I haven't seen the section where we have defined that life begins at conception.

that mischaracterizes the issue.

The burden of proof is on you to show that the constitution supports a broad right to choose (which is the justification for abortion), not the other way around. You cannot just claim something is a right and then expect it to be such unless and until proven otherwise. You have to show that the right is covered in the constitution, or get it added as an amendment. You are blatantly shifting the burden of proof. It is a dishonest and underhanded tactic.

Specifically with regards to the "right to choose"...
The constitution gives government a mandate to protect life (life, liberty and all that stuff). There is no broad right to choice in the constitution. Only by spinning the constitution and distorting it can you come up with that in the constitution. The Roe v. Wade ruling was blatant judicial activism and is in no way based in the text of the constitution.

There doesn't need to be a specific line in the constitution saying that life begins at conception (to argue that is to move the goalposts). The government has a constitutional mandate to protect life. So it is obligated to err on the side of life on this issue, not to err on the side of some made up, broad "right to choice".
 

Members online

No members online now.
Back
Top