At first I simply thought you were intentionally being dishonest and trying to redefine "fallacy" as broadly as possible. But, for the sake of argument, I will assume you are just ignorant of what a fallacy is and is not. However, I will acknowledge that your claim here is better then your last post. In the last post, you tried to argue that a premise or claim is fallacious. a premise can only be true or false, not logical or fallacious. Arguments are the only thing that can be logical or fallacious. Let me see if I can clarify here...
An argument can have true premises and/or true conclusions and still be fallacious. Here is an example:I have a dachshund. Therefore, the sky is blue.This argument has two claims that are both true; "I have a dachshund", and, "the sky is blue". However, the argument itself is fallacious. Weather or not I have a dachshund is irrelevant as to weather or not the sky is blue.
An argument can also have false premises and/or false conclusions but still be logical:I have no internet connection. Therefore, I cannot post on this message board.
I am posting on this message board, so I obviously have an internet connection. It is rather clear that both the premise and the conclusion are false. However, the argument is logical; If I have no internet connection, then I cannot post on this message board.
So, when you claim that my headline is logically unsound (fallacious) because (according to you) I "have yet to prove it", you are effectively equating "false" with "fallacy". Weather or not you realize it, your argument that my assertion is fallacious is, in and of itself, false (unsound), due to being based on a false premise (a flawed definition of the word "fallacy").
FYI; a fallacious argument is "misleading" and/or "deceptive" as a consequence of being illogical. My assertion is logical, and it is therefore, not misleading or deceptive. It may have been a little vague. But, when you first asked about it, I made sure to clear that up. I pointed out that the article was meant as an example of the hatred being encouraged by the left, not an example of actions being encouraged by the left.
So, to honestly discredit and argument, you have two ways to go about it. Either disprove the premises and/or conclusion (showing the argument to be unsound), or show that the argument is illogical. The methods are not one in the same.
If you don't understand what a fallacy is, and is not, then you are unable to give an honest and informed answer to my questions. Can you give the same "negative" response to those questions now that you understand (hopefully) what a fallacy is and isn't?
- Do you think fallacious arguments are a valid form of debate?
- Do you think fallacious arguments should go unchallenged (as to their logical nature) in a debate?
You are oversimplifying my assertion. There are two points in the headline; 1)that these actions are based in vile hatred and, 2) that the left is encouraging that hatred. The article was only ever meant as an illustration of the first point (that these actions are based in hatred). The second point, as I have spelled out countless times here, was taken for granted. When you asked for proof of that assumption, I provided it.
You are continuing a straw man mischaracterization of my assertion. I never said (or implied) that these specific actions are a direct result of encouragement by the left. In fact, when you first asked about that, I made it abundantly clear that the article was meant as an example of the hatred that is being encouraged by the left.
that has to be the most thought out circular amount of B.S. you have EVER posted yet.
nice attempt to save face, but you've really lost it there.
now trying to split them as 2 different points?
your trolling in your own thread.
hahahahahaha!