The coming evangelical collapse

Jefferson said they could be modified or abridged (changed). Cal and I went over the 'giving up part' before - Jefferson is changing those rights - not just 'giving them up'. There is a big difference.

Jefferson is only changing the phrasing of those rights in a document that is in no way legally binding and thus does not have the power to change (or "modify" or "abridge") those rights.

You still haven't answered my question Shag - how can man alter divine decree?

Quit dancing around it.

All we have to go on is your assumed premis that "divine decree" cannot be altered by man. The fact that under Lockean philosophy, Natural (God given) Rights and social contract theory are compatible shows that man can alter "divine decree" (if you want to call it that, though that is nothing more then spin) in this instance, at least. So you are working under a false premise.

You are right, religion shouldn't enter into the picture - but it would.

Again, you are working under a false premise based on nothing more them speculation and assumption.

He did not admit that [rights were generally accepted in America as coming from God] in the letter to Lee - He was trying to show that he didn't copy Locke

Ok, he implied it. Here is the quote (with relevant parts highlighted):
This was the object of the Declaration of Independence. Not to find out new principles, or new arguments, never before thought of, not merely to say things which had never been said before; but to place before mankind the common sense of the subject, in terms so plain and firm as to command their assent, and to justify ourselves in the independent stand we are compelled to take. Neither aiming at originality of principle or sentiment, nor yet copied from any particular and previous writing, it was intended to be an expression of the American mind, and to give to that expression the proper tone and spirit called for by the occasion.

The Declaration clearly ties rights back to God as the creator. Even Jefferson's own draft of the Declaration (his most important citation of those rights) ties those rights back to creation.

If he viewed those rights as simply inherent to being human, there would be no reason to tie them back to creation. To tie them back to the idea of creation is to tie them back to the idea of the rights being inherent because humans are a creature created by God in His image.

Just because he didn't specifically write "God" in reference to rights doesn't mean that it wasn't assumed. Again, the absence of proof is not the proof of absence.

And Jefferson, in all those times he wrote about rights, and stating where they derived from, he just left out 'God'? No way. He always put in Nature or self-evident, why would he leave out God? There is no reason for him to, unless it was deliberate. He very clearly has shown that he can use the word 'God'. He isn't afraid of it. He left it out, because he didn't think that rights derived from divine decree.

Once again; the absence of proof is not the proof of absence.

So, now we are suddenly talking about social contract theory - you didn't mention this before shag - big difference here - suddenly we are not talking about where rights originate, but the ability to give up those rights for the good of society - a 'contract' between the people and their government - Should we talk about Hobbs?

Why are you expanding the argument Shag - we don't need to.

You are the one who brought up social contract theory when you quoted Jefferson talking about it (post #93) and asserted the false premise that, "if they [rights] were derived from God - they could not be abridged or modified by mere man."

Here is the Jefferson quote in question (with relevant parts highlighted):
Every man, and every body of men on earth, posseses the right of self-government. They receive it with their being from the hand of nature. Individuals exercise it by their single will; collections of men by that of their majority; for the law of the majority is the natural law of every society of men. When a certain description of men are to transact together a particular business, the times and places of their meeting and separating, depend on their own will; they make a part of the natural right of self-government. This, like all other natural rights, may be abridged or modified in its exercise by their own consent, or by the law of those who depute them, if they meet in the right of others; but as far as it is not abridged or modified, they retain it as a natural right and may exercise them in what form they please, either exclusively by themselves, or in association with others, or by others altogether, as they shall agree.
Talking about rights being modified by consent (especially in reference to self-government) it to talk about social contract theory. In fact, that is the definition of social contract theory.

the reason I brought him up was to show that this line of thought had been going on for some time - that rights don't originate with God.

What you cited only demonstrates Paine's view. It logically says absolutely nothing about Jefferson's view. It nothing more that fallacious "guilt by association" reasoning.

It ties into the Lee letter - I went over this before. So, Jefferson, when writing to Lee was explaining that these ideas weren't new...

First, Paine's letter doesn't say anything about Jefferson's ideas. So it doesn't tie back into the letter even if Jefferson was giving his view rights in that letter. The Paine letter is nothing more then an irrelevant and deceptive red herring.

And, in the letter Jefferson is not giving his view of rights; he is telling Lee what, "the object of the Declaration of Independence" was. In Jefferson's view, the Declaration was to be, "an expression of the American mind". In both Jefferson's rough draft and the final version, rights are tied back to the act of creation and thus the idea that those rights are due to being created by God and in His image.

The only reason Jefferson called himself a "Christian" was because he followed and embraced the teachings of Christ. Sort of like calling someone stating they are a "Freudian" because they follow and embrace the teachings of Freud.

Heck, even Jefferson knew his beliefs were outside the main... "I am of a sect by myself, as far as I know."

He didn't believe Jesus was divine, "The day will come when the mystical generation of Jesus by the Supreme Being as his father in the womb of a virgin, will be classed with the fable of Minerva in the brain of Jupiter." He didn't believe Jesus was his savior - Ask Foss - unless you embrace Jesus as your savior it is hard to be labeled as a Christian. Jefferson labeled himself as a Christian using his own, unique definition. Everyone else would have labeled him as a deist - he didn't believe Christ died for him so he may go to heaven.

In Foss's version of heaven - Jefferson isn't there... In all other definitions of Christianity (other than Jefferson's unique one) Jefferson is not a Christian.

Again, none of the facts you cite are inconsistent with Unitarianism. All you are demonstrating is your ignorance of Unitarian thinking.

And yes, mr worm, shag plays by different sets of rules for different arguments. That is why I don't even call him on the 'absence of proof" stuff he keeps blithering about.

Well, I clearly play by a different set of rules then either of you. I try to make reasonable, logical arguments and expect the same of others. You both have habitually demonstrated that you don't "play by" those rules. :rolleyes:

And Fox, if you have some rebuttel to offer to the absence of proof thing; do it.

Heck there certainly is almost no mention of 'rights' in the Bible, and especially in the way we are discussing them.

That is because the theory was created after the Bible was written.

How odd that God should leave that whole little bit out. I could easily show that in the Bible God was never concerned with rights, never endowed them on anyone...;) How can anyone claim that rights derive from God when there is no mention of them in the bible? There is an absence of proof there. But, let's not go down this silly road... I am using this only as an example shag.

You are misdirecting, again. We are talking about the Framer's views on the origin of rights; specifically Jefferson. Weather or not the Bible says's anything about rights is irrelevant to that discussion; another red herring.

And as to the "absence of proof" thing in that context. The only one making that argument there is you by arguing that because the Bible doesn't say anything about God endowing humans with inalienable rights (absence of proof), those rights don't exist (proof of absence).

I was exploring rights and the evolution of rights

And everyone else (including Cal) was talking about what the theory of natural rights is and what the Framer's understood it as. You were skipping ahead without first grounding yourself in an accurate understanding of the concepts and history being discussed, which is exceedingly presumptuous.

I was using Jefferson's changing of Locke's 'property' to 'pursuit of happiness' as a fundamental change in how rights were perceived prior to the writing of the Declaration.

Another point based more on speculation rather then historical facts. Here is Jefferson's original draft of the Declaration:
We hold these truths to be self-evident; that all men are created equal and independent; that from that equal creation they derive rights inherent and inalienable, among which are the preservation of life, and liberty, and the pursuit of happiness; that to secure these ends, governments are instituted among men, deriving their just power from the consent of the governed; that whenever any form of government shall become destructive of these ends, it is the right of the people to alter or to abolish it, and to institute new government, laying it's foundation on such principles and organizing it's power in such form, as to them shall seem most likely to effect their safety and happiness.

Now here are a few other quotes by Jefferson that reference those natural rights and give more insight into his views on what those rights were:
Man is capable of living in society, governing itself by laws self-imposed, and securing to its members the enjoyment of life, liberty, property, and peace.
-Jefferson, Declaration and Protest of Virginia, 1825

No Englishman will pretend that a right to participate in government can be derived from any other source than a personal right, or a right of property
-Jefferson, Answers to Soules Questions, 1786

"[It is a] great truth that industry, commerce and security are the surest roads to the happiness and prosperity of [a] people
-Jefferson to Francisco Chiappe, 1789

I like [the declaration of rights] as far as it goes, but I should have been for going further. For instance, the following alterations and additions would have pleased me...The people shall not be deprived or abridged of their right to speak, to write, or otherwise to publish anything but false facts affecting injuriously the life, liberty, property or reputation of others, or affecting the peace of the confederacy with foreign nations.
-Jefferson to Madison, 1789​

Jefferson did view property as a natural right, but seemed to differentiate life and liberty, which he characterized as "personal rights" in the 1786 quote. Property rights seemed more along the lines of a right aimed at the pursuit of happiness; a broader, more all inclusive category. So, his understanding of Natural Rights seemed to expand on Locke's. This seems to be a very common view of the time as well. According to this article, The Pennsylvania Constitution said that, "all men are born equally free and independent, and have certain natural, inherent, and inalienable rights, amongst which are, the enjoying and defending of life and liberty, acquiring, possessing and protecting property, and pursuing and obtaining happiness and safety". The New Hampshire Constitution said, "acquiring, possessing and protecting property--and in a word ... seeking and obtaining happiness" were among the natural rights of men.

So, property rights weren't replaced by the pursuit of happiness, but appear to be considered a part of the pusuit of happiness.
 
He didn't believe Jesus was his savior - Ask Foss - unless you embrace Jesus as your savior it is hard to be labeled as a Christian. Jefferson labeled himself as a Christian using his own, unique definition. Everyone else would have labeled him as a deist - he didn't believe Christ died for him so he may go to heaven.

In Foss's version of heaven - Jefferson isn't there... In all other definitions of Christianity (other than Jefferson's unique one) Jefferson is not a Christian.
Fox, while I appreciate your attempts to use me as a citation, I would prefer you instead cited the Bible, as that is where I get my information.

Kthx.
 
Jefferson is only changing the phrasing of those rights in a document that is in no way legally binding and thus does not have the power to change (or "modify" or "abridge") those rights.

It doesn't matter whether it is legally binding - it is what Jefferson thought. He changed 'property' to 'pursuit of happiness' - he, Jefferson thought it was OK to change God's will, if he believed them to be God's will. He didn't. He felt our rights originate within man - so, man has the ability to modify them or alter them.

So, shag, divine decree - God's will, God's word can be changed by man? That is what you are saying? That it is OK for man to change the 10 commandments for instance. That is a divine decree. If rights have been given by God - it is OK for man to change them, that is what you are now saying? So what good is it that they have been ordained by God? That is what you have been so insistent on - that since they are decreed by God - they are handed down from on high on gossamer wings to take root within mankind, they are above being changed by government. But now, if divine decree can be altered by mere man - why does it matter that they originate with God? I thought that was the whole idea that they were pasted onto us by God - that then they couldn't be changed or challenged by any man, or group of men.

So it appears that there is no advantage to having them decreed by God - right? Change can happen with either idea (that we are discussing here) of where rights originate - within ourselves or by God.

You are right, religion shouldn't enter into the picture - but it would.
Again, you are working under a false premise based on nothing more them speculation and assumption.

Nope, religion always gets in the way of government if given a foothold. That is why the founding fathers insisted on keeping it out of government. I am not basing this on some false premise, I am basing this on how the founding fathers built our government - no church involvement.

The Declaration clearly ties rights back to God as the creator. Even Jefferson's own draft of the Declaration (his most important citation of those rights) ties those rights back to creation.

If he viewed those rights as simply inherent to being human, there would be no reason to tie them back to creation. To tie them back to the idea of creation is to tie them back to the idea of the rights being inherent because humans are a creature created by God in His image.

But, Jefferson used created and creation - equal creation, which does not tie into assigning creation to any God or Creator. Jefferson avoided using God, explicitly. He was tying them back to the fact that when we arrive on this earth, we are all equal. Whether we are born to king or pauper we all have certain rights, because we are born equal, created equal. Not because God created us. And get rid of the whole 'in his image' thing Shag - that has nothing to do with this debate.

What you cited only demonstrates Paine's view. It logically says absolutely nothing about Jefferson's view. It nothing more that fallacious "guilt by association" reasoning.

And shag - if you can't understand that the only reason I brought up Paine was to put into historical content that the idea that rights derive from something other than 'God' was around with others at this time, then I guess you just won't understand. It isn't guilt by association. It is historical precedent. If others in the same time period are espousing similar thoughts, then you can show that Jefferson's idea that rights emanate from something other than God isn't that unusual - or 'new'. It once again goes back to Lee's letter when Jefferson is saying that there wasn't anything new in the DOI.

Again, none of the facts you cite are inconsistent with Unitarianism. All you are demonstrating is your ignorance of Unitarian thinking.

Ah, shag, I never said Jefferson wasn't a Unitarian. Where is that little quote of mine? I was explaining why he called himself a Christian. Unitarian's aren't Christians... Unitarianism is the belief that God exists in one person, not three. It is a denial of the holy trinity as well as the divine aspect of Jesus. Therefore, it is not Christian. Jefferson certainly showed signs of being a unitarian, far more than a deist (I didn't claim he was a deist either)... He called himself a 'unitarian by himself' once - which goes with the 'sect unto myself' quote. He really didn't associate himself with any 'religion'. He believed his religious thoughts were very unique, and unlike anyone else. It really doesn't matter though. I just figured you were like many religious right people who try really hard to claim Jefferson as Christian. I wanted to be sure people understood Jefferson's definition of the word 'Christian', and how it is different than how we view Christians. Why do you try to claim things I never said Shag - why do you try to discredit me like this? You do it over and over again...

And Fox, if you have some rebuttel to offer to the absence of proof thing; do it.

I have shown overwhelming evidence that Jefferson didn't believe that rights come from some divine god. You are saying that the absence of God from all but 2 of his many, many quotes on rights (one questionable and the other one when he was younger, and over 2 year before the DOI) is because it was 'de rigour' for the times to 'assume' God instilled rights. Jefferson was hardly 'de rigour'. He changed Locke, Hobbs. He changed the world Shag. He changed the idea that rights come from God. You are trying to state that you know what Jefferson assumed? Really - how?

Heck there certainly is almost no mention of 'rights' in the Bible, and especially in the way we are discussing them.
That is because the theory was created after the Bible was written.

So, you are arguing theory Shag - just a question here - it is basically a theory that rights are given to us from God? That in biblical times people didn't have rights - or maybe it just wasn't important enough to put into the bible. Civil law is all over the bible - but somehow they missed on on rights from God? Heck, Locke thought prehistoric man had rights...

And everyone else (including Cal) was talking about what the theory of natural rights is and what the Framer's understood it as. You were skipping ahead without first grounding yourself in an accurate understanding of the concepts and history being discussed, which is exceedingly presumptuous.

Not presumptuous - I was going beyond, what is wrong with that in discussion? Or do you have a list of rules regarding discussion as well? And I do know the history being discussed. Just because my 'viewpoint' regarding history is different, doesn't mean I don't know it. We both bring different knowledge sets to the table .... I am not as ignorant as you paint me Shag, that is presumptuous of you. And I might add elitist - you took classes, you wrote papers (that you copied sections from Limbaugh's book in) you obviously know more than I do because of those things - right?

Jefferson did view property as a natural right, but seemed to differentiate life and liberty, which he characterized as "personal rights" in the 1786 quote. Property rights seemed more along the lines of a right aimed at the pursuit of happiness; a broader, more all inclusive category. So, his understanding of Natural Rights seemed to expand on Locke's. This seems to be a very common view of the time as well. According to this article, The Pennsylvania Constitution said that, "all men are born equally free and independent, and have certain natural, inherent, and inalienable rights, amongst which are, the enjoying and defending of life and liberty, acquiring, possessing and protecting property, and pursuing and obtaining happiness and safety".

As far as showing quotes about property rights/pursuit of happiness. There is a difference between them. The fact that Jefferson included pursuit of happiness within the DOI, shows again that he was changing away from historical views of the subject. Lockes' idea that all men should have the ability to own property is so much smaller than Jefferson's idea of having the right to pursue happiness. This encompasses much more of the human condition. Notice your quote regarding the Penn Constitution - they include both property and happiness - no assumption that property is a subset of happiness. And did you know that Thomas Paine has been credited as one of the minor authors of it? Once again shag - I didn't say that Jefferson didn't view 'property' as a right, I said in the Declaration he went beyond Locke's list of rights. Jefferson's 'Pursuit of happiness' probably does include property (unlike the Penn Constitution authors who appear to see them as 2 different things), but in goes so far beyond that. Quit implying I say things I don't...

Oh, Shag, on those last 4 quotes from Jefferson - notice something missing - any mention of God whatsoever... rights/God, not mentioned together.

And Foss - I know Shag wouldn't question you regarding religious subjects, that is why I used you as source... ;)

"I like the dreams of the future better than the history of the past." Jefferson - to John Adams, 1816
 
It doesn't matter whether it is legally binding - it is what Jefferson thought. He changed 'property' to 'pursuit of happiness' - he, Jefferson thought it was OK to change God's will, if he believed them to be God's will. He didn't. He felt our rights originate within man - so, man has the ability to modify them or alter them.

First, he didn't change property to pursuit of happiness. Those Jefferson quotes I cited at the end of post 101 pretty well show that. Jefferson expanded the idea of property to the more broad idea of a "pursuit of happiness", which was a rather common and generally accepted view at the time (evidence; the final draft of the Declaration, the Pennsylvania Constitution and the New Hampshire Constitution).

And, again, he was only modifying the phrasing. He was in no was substantively changing those rights. They always included life, liberty and property.

Here are some more quotes of Jefferson's to keep in mind:
The Declaration of Independence... [is the] declaratory charter of our rights, and of the rights of man.
-Jefferson to Samuel Adams Wells, 1819

Some other natural rights... [have] not yet entered into any declaration of rights
-Jefferson to John W. Eppes, 1813​

Jefferson was phrasing the term as broad as possible to encompass all other "non-personal" rights. The terminology gets more specific when those rights are enumerated in the social contract. And they altered the theory a bit in what rights they viewed as "natural rights". That much is pretty evident. So what? It is a theory they chose to accept and apply as they saw fit. What qualifies as 'Natural right' is not set in stone. The amendment process can effectively add to that list of what qualifies as a natural right.

So, shag, divine decree - God's will, God's word can be changed by man?

You are the one characterizing it as a "decree". That characterization is entirely inappropriate and flat out deceptive in the context of this debate.

Here is the definition of decree:
An authoritative order having the force of law.
Lockean theory, and the Framers never assumed that those rights came from a "decree" from God. Those Natural Rights were viewed simply as a byproduct of being created in the image of God. If you knew anything about the basic theory of Natural Rights (or took the time to learn), you would know that. :rolleyes:

Nope, religion always gets in the way of government if given a foothold. That is why the founding fathers insisted on keeping it out of government. I am not basing this on some false premise, I am basing this on how the founding fathers built our government - no church involvement.

You are basing this on nothing but a false premise citing more inaccurate assertions (based on speculation and distortion) as proof; a false premise backed up by another false premise.

But, Jefferson used created and creation - equal creation, which does not tie into assigning creation to any God or Creator.

"Equal creation" is part of the Lockean idea of God given Natural Rights.

Jefferson avoided using God, explicitly.

Once again, the absence of proof is not the proof of absence.

And get rid of the whole 'in his image' thing Shag - that has nothing to do with this debate.

It is at the heart of the idea of God given natural rights. It is very relevant to this debate.

And shag - if you can't understand that the only reason I brought up Paine was to put into historical content that the idea that rights derive from something other than 'God' was around with others at this time, then I guess you just won't understand.

I understand that point, but in the context of the debate here, that is not why you originally brought it up. In post number 93 you brought Paine up as support for the conclusion that, "he [Jefferson] didn't think rights came from God".

Then you went on, citing that irrational and inaccurate conclusion as a false premise to draw the conclusion that, "the founding fathers wanted 'God' out of the equation when it came to rights."

As usual, you are basing your simply simply on false premises drawn from cherry picked (and distorted) facts and speculation to reach irrational conclusion.:rolleyes:

It isn't guilt by association. It is historical precedent. If others in the same time period are espousing similar thoughts, then you can show that Jefferson's idea that rights emanate from something other than God isn't that unusual - or 'new'. It once again goes back to Lee's letter when Jefferson is saying that there wasn't anything new in the DOI.

First; you haven't cited "others", you have cited...Paine.

Second; you have not shown that Jefferson viewed rights as not coming from God. You have yet to cite one peice of evidence that supports that conclusion. The best you have done is cite quote that don't explicitly support the idea. Once again, the absence of proof is not the proof of absence.
The argument from ignorance...is a logical fallacy in which it is claimed that a premise is true only because it has not been proven false, or is false only because it has not been proven true.

I have cited a number of quotes that clearly demonstrate that Jefferson did view rights as coming from God. Your quotes don't counter that conclusion and have to be viewed in a consistent manner with those quotes I have offered.

Ah, shag, I never said Jefferson wasn't a Unitarian. Where is that little quote of mine? I was explaining why he called himself a Christian. Unitarian's aren't Christians... Unitarianism is the belief that God exists in one person, not three. It is a denial of the holy trinity as well as the divine aspect of Jesus. Therefore, it is not Christian. Jefferson certainly showed signs of being a unitarian, far more than a deist (I didn't claim he was a deist either)... He called himself a 'unitarian by himself' once - which goes with the 'sect unto myself' quote. He really didn't associate himself with any 'religion'.

Ahh...Unitarians believe that their religion is the original form of Christianity. While some Christians (Trinitarians) would say that Unitarianism is not true Christianity; technically, defined as a form of Christianity. Really, Fossten would be the best one to explain these distinctions.

I have shown overwhelming evidence that Jefferson didn't believe that rights come from some divine god.

You have cited a large amount of facts (though I think I have probably cited more quotes at this point), but none of that evidence supports the idea that Jefferson did not believe that rights come from God. They simply don't support the idea that Jefferson did believe that rights come from God.

The degree of difference is irrelevant. It doesn't matter how many quotes you cite that are unclear; those quotes have to be viewed as consistent with the quotes that are clear on this subject. To try and argue that those unclear quotes counter those clear quotes is to attempt to mischaracterize and read too much into those unclear quotes.

So, you are arguing theory Shag - just a question here - it is basically a theory that rights are given to us from God?

Yep, a theory that the Framers assumed when founding this country.

Not presumptuous - I was going beyond, what is wrong with that in discussion?

You have to first be on the same page with everyone in the discussion before you can "go beyond". I tried to bring you up to speed, but you quickly demonstrated that you were not interested in that. Cal was much more patient but you were still trying to "go beyond". You can't have an honest debate without a common ground first. If the understanding of reality is different (which is clearly the case), then you need to come to some sort of understanding, if possible. Otherwise, the whole "going beyond" thing is irrelevant.

And I do know the history being discussed.

Well, you clearly know a distortion of it. Unfortunately, there has been a lot of historical revisionism over the past fifty years. To get to the truth, you have to go to primary sources as much as possible. Howard Zinn (A People's History of the United States), Noam Chomsky and Gore Vidal are prime examples of leftist's revising history to support their own views. Many college courses across the nation require the works of these liars and frauds as required reading (I have wasted too much of my life consuming that propaganda and having to regurgitate it to pass a class).

Just because my 'viewpoint' regarding history is different, doesn't mean I don't know it.

No but, looking at the historical facts, it is clear that so much of what you know it wrong.

As far as showing quotes about property rights/pursuit of happiness. There is a difference between them. The fact that Jefferson included pursuit of happiness within the DOI, shows again that he was changing away from historical views of the subject. Lockes' idea that all men should have the ability to own property is so much smaller than Jefferson's idea of having the right to pursue happiness.

Yes, Jefferson and the Framers did expand on the idea of property rights to cover any right that was not a "personal right" in Jefferson's view. However, when it came time to create that social contract (the Constitution) and they decided to add an enumeration of those rights into that contract, the made it clear that the right to property was listed as one of those rights (5th Amendment).
 
Yes, Jefferson and the Framers did expand on the idea of property rights to cover any right that was not a "personal right" in Jefferson's view. However, when it came time to create that social contract (the Constitution) and they decided to add an enumeration of those rights into that contract, the made it clear that the right to property was listed as one of those rights (5th Amendment).
Shag – If you can’t tell, I was trying to figure out if you think that the ‘inalienable’ rights within the DOI can be changed or altered. That is what almost all of this has been about, at least for me… Most people who believe that they are handed down from ‘on high’ don’t think they can be. Others, who think that they are part of the human condition, believe that they can be altered or changed.

So, after all this, it appears that you think that it is OK for those big ‘three’ as it were, to be changed or altered – correct? I am just checking here, because it would be rather a departure from what ‘most’ people who view rights as ‘divine derived’ believe.

Because, then we can get into something far, far more interesting… What, why, and how should those rights be changed and altered when the time comes. Those rights which do not deal with ‘civil’ rights – such as are put forth the in the constitution, but those rights which are ‘natural’ rights – the ones in the DOI…

Maybe we could ‘discuss’ instead of argue. Now, we have a basis where we can start. Natural rights can be altered, expanded on, or changed, and in fact, have been altered in the past (Jefferson – property to pursuit of happiness). And it is OK to change them - right?

Well, you clearly know a distortion of it. Unfortunately, there has been a lot of historical revisionism over the past fifty years. To get to the truth, you have to go to primary sources as much as possible. Howard Zinn (A People's History of the United States), Noam Chomsky and Gore Vidal are prime examples of leftist's revising history to support their own views. Many college courses across the nation require the works of these liars and frauds as required reading (I have wasted too much of my life consuming that propaganda and having to regurgitate it to pass a class).

Oh, and as far as revising history – you certainly came up with your own that have obviously been influenced by the religious right – Paine an atheist – hahahaha, Jefferson a Christian – ah, no. The only thing I ‘didn’t’ get right according to you (or revised) was that Jefferson viewed rights as human derived. That is opinion, neither of us can go back and find that out. I hopefully haven't stated anything that was 'just' factually incorrect. Our viewpoints differ, but I don't think I got dates, quotes, religious beliefs, etc. factually wrong. I know Locke, Hobbs, etc. So, quit blithering on about it.

Can we now get into something far more interesting? What rights do you think might need changing or altering in the future, would we need to add additional rights at some point? And how, as a republic, do you think we should address changing those inalienable rights.

However I fear, it will now only be us, and perhaps not as interesting as this could have been. I was hoping to involve others, but, because we had to go through this whole stupid debate thing to get to this point, they have probably all left… Maybe at least Cal has stuck around... or someone else that would like to discuss instead of argue.

Can we get beyond the whole debate thing now shag - and start discussing? I would love to find out more about how you see the future, not just the doom and gloom part, but the part where we, the United States, continue on. Maybe find out more about your human condition? Have you been influenced by Heinlein - and his view of rights in the future. Maybe by David Brin. How about Huxley - and certainly Orwell. Maybe Skinner.

And is there anyone else who actually stuck this out? What are your viewpoints on rights in the future? No right answers, no wrong ones, just explore for a while.

Now is the time to interject the 'created in his image'.... in this part shag... ;)
 

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