I DID finally find the context of that definiton of religion at this link:
http://www.plymrock.org/leadership.html
George Mason submitted the first draft of the Virginia Declaration of Rights to the committee assigned to present such a declaration to Virginia's first state constitutional convention in 1776. That committee's amended Article 18 reads:
That religion, or the duty which we owe to our Creator, and the manner of discharging it, can be directed only by reason and conviction, not by force or violence; and, therefore, that all men should enjoy the fullest toleration in the exercise of religion according to the dictates of conscience, unpunished and unrestrained by the magistrates, unless under color of religion any man disturb the peace, the happiness, or safety of society.
Basically this is talking about free exercise of religion within certian limits. But even further down on the page, it talks about those limits, and how that was changed:
James Madison was a member of the Declaration of Rights committee, And, as reported in the documentary record, his thought was that "toleration was a grant, freedom a right." 1 In proposing amendments to the original language of the committee's draft, the documentary record says that Madison started with the phrase "that all men should enjoy the fullest toleration in the exercise of religion", He drew two lines through "should" and above it wrote, "are equally entitled to," He then deleted the four words "the fullest toleration of" and before the noun "exercise" inserted the adjective "free."
The record refers to the phrase "unless, under color of religion any man disturb the peace, the happiness, or safety of society" as a "gaping loophole clause" because it obviously would given any civil magistrate the right to render his personal opinion with respect to someone's free exercise of religion. In the committee, the "entire loophole clause, beginning with 'unpunished and unrestrained' ... was excised -- any delegate could agree that a clear and present danger [in the original toileting language] justified forceful response."
This is consistent with the ruling in
Employment Division v. Smith (1990).
If you are saying that religion, as an idea can't be tried in court directly, and as such is above the law, then yes that is accurate and I would agree with you. If you are trying to imply that religion can be used as an excuse to break the law (or a justification for that), then that would be inaccurate and wrong.
Please, clarify and explain what you are getting at here.